Teaching MCQs in Neurology Basics for MRCPI Part I

  The following MCQs are related to certain basics in neurology. Please read  them carefully and review your answers. 

 Dr. Osama Amin
All Rights Reserved. February 2006.
http://neurology4mrcp.orgfree.com/
http://neurology4mrcp.bravejournal.com/
 
 Q1: Optic nerve:

a. Is located in the posterior fossa.
b. Optic neuritis causes bitemporal hemianopia.
c. Optic nerve sheath meningioma can produce proptosis of the globe.
d. Originates from the ganglion cells in the retina.
e. Leber's optic neuropathy is a form of tobacco-alcohol amblyopia.

 
Q2: Oculomotor nerve:

a. Originates from the upper part of pons.

b. Has many subnuclei.

c. Pupillary sparing palsy indicates a compressive lesion.

d. Can be a false localizing sign in herniation syndromes.

e. Responsible for innervating the dilator pupillae.

 

Q3: Trochlear nerve:

a. Originates from the midbrain.

b. The only cranial nerve that exits from the dorsal surface of the brainstem.

c. Its lesion results in paralysis of the inferior oblique muscle.

d. It supplies only 1 orbital muscle.

e. Its palsy causes horizontal diplopia.

 

Q4: The trigeminal nerve:

a. It is the largest cranial nerve.

b. It has 2 roots.

c. Carries parasympathetic fibers to the sublingual glands.

d. Its lesion can cause deviation of the jaw.

e. Carries the efferent elements of the corneal reflex.

 

Q5: The abducens nerve:

a. Can be damaged in pseudotumor cerebri.

b. It exits from the ponto-mesencephalic junction.

c. Its lesion causes vertical diplopia.

d. Enters the orbit through the inferior oblique fissure.

e. Its lesion is a part of Millard Gubler syndrome.

 

Q6: The facial nerve:

a. Has a long loop inside the pons.

b. Has 2 roots.

c. Attached to the ventral mid-portion of the pons.

d. A pure motor cranial nerve.

e. In Ramsay Hunt syndrome, the upper face is spared.

 

Q7: The vestibule-cochlear nerve:

a. Is a pure sensory nerve.

b. Its lesions can cause tinnitus.

c. Severe vertigo is seen peripheral nerve lesions.

d. The resulted nystagmus is towards the side of the lesion.

e. It leaves the posterior fossa through the foramen ovale.

 

 

Q8: The Glossopharyngeal nerve:

a. Supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.

b. Mediates the carotid sinus reflex.

c. Carries taste sensation from the posterior 2/3rds of the tongue.

d. Exists the skull through the jugular foramen.

e. Carries general somatic sensation from the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue.

 

Q9: The vagus nerve:

a. Is the longest cranial nerve.

b. Can be damaged by lesions inside the chest.

c. Its nuclei are involved in lateral medullary syndrome.

d. It supplies motor innervation to platysma muscle.

e. Is damaged early in motor neuron disease.

 

Q10: The accessory nerve:

a. The spinal root enters the skull through the hypoglossal canal.

b. The spinal root arises for the 1^st 2 cervical segments of the cord. 

c. Its lesions produce weakness of neck extension.

d. commonly involved in hemispheric strokes.

e. The cranial root supplies the laryngeal muscles.

 

Q11: The hypoglossal nerve:

a. A pure motor nerve.

b. Its lesions cause deviation of the tongue towards the normal side.

c. Arises from the upper cervical cord.

d. Its nuclei can be involved in motor neuron disease.

e. Is involved in medial medullary syndrome.

 

Q12: The olfactory nerve:

a. Its sensory nuclei are in the anterior cranial fossa.

b. Can be damaged by tobacco smoke.

c. Commonly properly examined in neurology.

d. It is underneath the frontal lobe.

e. Has connections with the limbic system.

 

Q13: The Frontal lobe:

a. Has the Broca's area.

b. Disinhibition can be seen in its lesions.

c. The micturition center id found in the medial surface.

d. Supplied by the vertebral artery.

e. A frontal lobe abscess can be a direct complication of a mastoid sinus sepsis.

 

Q14: The frontal lobe:

a. A focal motor seizure arises from it.

b. Can be damaged by superior sagittal sinus thrombosis.

c. The middle cerebral artery supplies its medial surface.

d. A positive palmo-mental reflex excludes a frontal lobe lesion.

e. Bilateral lesions can cause paraplegia.      

  

 

Q15: The frontal lobe:

a. Depression can be a presenting feature of its lesions.

b. A large frontal lobe tumor can cause contralateral disc swelling.

c. Is atrophied in Pick's dementia.

d. Has the hippocampus.

e. The amygdala lies in its anterior inferior surface.

 

Q16: The temporal lobe:

a. Has the secondary auditory association area.

b. Its damage can cause Wernike's aphasia.

c. The uncus herniates in temporal lobe abscess.

d. An episodic isolated vertigo may indicate a temporal lobe seizure.

e. Is atrophied in Pick's dementia.

 

Q17: The temporal lobe:

a. Lies in the anterior cranial fossa.

b. Its medial surface is supplied by the middle cerebral artery.

c. The optic radiation does not pass through it.

d. Its anterior part can be resected in primary generalized epilepsies.

e. Responsible for petit mal epilepsy generation.

 

Q18: The parietal lobe:

a. Has a motor cortical strip.

b. Its lesions can cause formed visual hallucinations.

c. The middle cerebral artery supplies its lateral surface.

d. Loss of 2 point discrimination can be a parietal cortical sign.

e. Gait apraxia indicates a parietal lobe dysfunction.

 

Q19: The followings are parts of the limbic lobe:

a. Subcallosal gyrus.

b. Cingulate gyrus.

c. Parahippocampal gyrus.

d. Upper segments of the cervical cord.

e. Uncus.

 

Q20: The followings are parts of the limbic system:

a. Septal nuclei.

b. Amygdala.

c. Hippocampal formation.

d. Epithalamus.

e. Hypothalamus.

 

Q21: The limbic system plays important roles in:

a. Motivation.

b. Sexual behavior.

c. Vision.

d. Hearing.

e. Motor coordination.

 

 

Q22: The cerebrospinal fluid:

a. Is formed by the arachnoid granulations.

b. Its volume ranges from 90-150 ml.

c. Choroid plexus papilloma causes low CSF formation.

d. Its sodium concentration is higher than that of plasma.

e. Has a specific gravity of 1.006-0.009

 

Q23: The CSF is absorbed by the followings:

a. Arachnoid granulations.

b. Choroid plexus.

c. Thalamus.

d. Ependyma.

e. Middle meningeal arteries.

 

Q24: Subarachnoid cisters:

a. Cisterna magna surrounds the midbrain.

b. Cisterna pontis lies between the pons and cvlivus.

c. Cisterna interpeduncularis lies between the pyramids of the medulla oblongata.

d. The suprasellar cistern is dorsal to the sella turcica.

e. Cisterna ambiens is dorsal and lateral to the mesencephalon.

 

Q25: The followings are seen in REM-sleep:

a. Erection is males.

b. Teeth grinding.

c. Regular slow respiration.

d. A decline in blood pressure.

e. Increased muscle tone.

 

Q26: The followings are seen in non-REM sleep:

a. Reduced muscle tone.

b. A decrease in blood pressure.

c. An increase in the heart rate.

d. An increase in the respiratory rate.

e. The presence of low voltage rapid EEG complexes.

 

Q27: The cerebral circulation:

a. The mid brain is partly supplied by the posterior cerebral artery.

b. The hippocampus is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

c. The basilar artery supplies the pons.

d. Spinal cord is supplied by anterior and posterior spinal arteries only.

e. The micturition center in the frontal lobe is supplied by the middle cerebral artery.

 

Q28: The pyramidal tract:

a. Arises only from the prefrontal cortex.

b. Decussates in the lower pons.

c. It lesion can cause chorea.

d. Lies in the posterior column of the spinal cord.

e. It is concerned with motor control.

 

 

Q29: Upper motor neuron signs are:

a. Complete paralysis of involved muscles.

b. Dysthesic pain.

c. Ill sustained ankle clonus.

d. Positive finger flexion jerk.

e. Lead pipe rigidity. 

 

Q30: Cerebellar lesions can cause:

a. Severe motor weakness.

b. Positive rebound phenomenon.

c. Defective saccadic eye movements.

d. Impaired pursuit eye movements.

e. Transient gaze paresis.

 

Q31: The spinothalamic tracts:

a. Are sensory long tracts.

b. Occupy the dorsal columns.

c. Convey Join position and vibration sensations.

d. Unilateral cord lesions produce loss of associated sensations ipsilaterally.

e. Severely involved in vitamin B12 Deficiency.

 

Q32: The spinal cord:

a. Occupies the whole vertebral canal.

b. It has 2 areas of enlargement.

c. The dorsal cord lesions can cause paraplegia.

d. The subpial areas are particularly involved in multiple sclerosis.

e. The upper cervical segments have a contribution to many cranial nerves.

 

Q33: The motor end plate:

a. Glutamate is the neurotransmitter.

b. Botulism attacks the nerve terminal side.

c. Lambert Eaton syndrome attacks the muscle side.

d. Acetylcholine receptors are functionless.

e. Wider and simplified in myasthenia gravis.

 

Q34: Muscle fibers:

a. Fast twitching fibers are highly rich in glycogen.

b. The erector spinae muscle is an example of fast twitching muscle.

c. Myoglobin content is low in white fibers.

d. The red fibers are fatigue resistant.

e. Steroid myopathy attacks type II fibers.

 

Q35: When choosing a muscle for muscle biopsy for light microscopic examination: 

a. The muscle should always be affected.

b. The deltoid, vastus medialis and calf muscles are preferred.

c. Should have a power of at least grade 3.

d. Should not be taken from a muscle recently injected by a medication.

e. Very useful in motor end plate diseases.

 

Q36: Muscle biopsy results:

a. Ragged red fibers are seen in mitochondrial cytopathy.

b. Ragged red fibers are seen in HIV patients on zidovudin.

c. Perifascicular atrophy is characteristically seen in dermatomyositis.

d. Rimmed vacuoles with myeloid bodies are seen in inclusion body myositis.

e. Fiber type grouping is seen in neurogenic muscular atrophy.

 

Q37: Muscle biopsy findings in myasthenia gravis:

a. The presence of lymphorrhages.

b. Simplification of the postsynaptic membrane.

c. Fiber type grouping.

d. Muscle fiber regeneration with fasciitis.

e. Extensive eosinophilic infiltration.

 

Q38: EEG waves and rhythms:

a. Alpha rhythm is normally seen mainly posteriorly.

b. The delta rhythm has a frequency of 0.5-3 cps.

c. Theta preponderance rhythms are seen in normal children.

d. Slow waves are normally seen in a wakeful adult.

e. The Beta rhythm is inhibited by sedatives.

 

Q39: The medulla oblongata contains the following nuclei:

a. Nucleus ambiguus.

b. Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus nerve.

c. Locus cerulus.

d. Nucleus fastigius.

e. Amygdala.

 

Q40: Localization in neurology:

a. Chorea is caused by lesions in the caudate nuclei.

b. Hemiballismus is seen in hypothalamic lesions.

c. Myoclonus has no specific localization.

d. Tremor is caused by over activity of the pontine nuclei.

e. Anomia is seen in lesions involving the upper midbrain.

 

Q41: The neuroglial cells:

a. Protoplasmic astrocytes have a phagocytic function.

b. Microglia is inactive in normal CNS.

c. Ependymocytes can absorb the CSF.

d. Oligodendrocytes from myelin in the CNS.

e. Fibrous astrocytes are electrical insulators.

 

Q42: Location of the various glial cells:

a. Protoplasmic astrocytes in the gray matter.

b. Ependymocytes line the central canal of the spinal cord.

c. Tanycytes in the gray matter.

d. Microglial cells are scattered through out the CNS.

e. Choroidal epithelial cells in white matter of the spinal cord.

 

 

Q43: Type of receptor and its corresponding sensory modality:

a. Pacinian corpuscles and vibration sensation.

b. Ruffini's corpuscles and skin stretching.

c. Merkel's disc and skin temperature sensation.

d. Meissner's corpuscles and muscle tension.

e. Free nerve endings and pain sensation.

 

Q44: Chemical compounds acting on the motor end plate:

a. Botulinum toxin reduces the release of acetylcholine.

b. d-tubocurarine blocks the acetylcholine receptors.

c. 4-aminopyridine reduces acetylcholine release.

d. Succinylcholine produces depolarization block.

e. Guanidine hydrochloride reduces acetylcholine release.

 

Q45: The followings are found in midbrain:

a. Oculomotor nerve.

b. Red nuclei.

c. Locus cerulus.

d. Cerebral peduncles.

e. Inferior colliculi.

 

Q46: The followings are found in the pons:

a. The vestibular nuclei.

b. Trapezoid body.

c. Mammillary bodies.

d. Uncus.

 e. Facial nerve fasciculus.

 

Q47: The followings are found in the medulla oblongata:

a. Inferior olivary nuclear complex.

b. Cerebral peduncles.

c. Pineal body

d. Hypoglossal nucleus.

e. Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve:

 

Q48: Foramena of the skull:

a. The optic nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure.

b. The hypoglossal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.

c. The Abducens passes through the foramen rotundum.

d. The oculomotor nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure.

e. The trigeminal nerve main trunk passes through foramen ovale.

 

Q49: Aphasias:

a. Broca's aphasia is due to lesion in the frontal lobe.

b. Wernicke's aphasia is due to lesion in the upper parietal lobe.

c. Trans-cortical motor aphasia is due to lesion in the upper lateral frontal lobe.

d. Conductive aphasia is due to lesion in the medial temporal lobe.

e. Anomic aphasia could be lesion in pons.

 

 

Q50: Localization in clinical neurology:

a. Aphasia could be due to thalamic lesion.

b. Dysarthria could be due to cortical lesion.

c. Hemianopia is a supratentorial sign.

d. Lacunar strokes are not associated with impaired consciousness.

e. Barber chair sign indicates a local cervical cord lesion.

 To be continued....Answers.

      

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